Trinity Term [2016] UKSC 51 On appeal from: [2015] CSIH 64

JUDGMENT
The Christian Institute and others (Appellants) v
The Lord Advocate (Respondent) (Scotland)
before
Lady Hale, Deputy President
Lord Wilson
Lord Reed
Lord Hughes
Lord Hodge
JUDGMENT GIVEN ON
28 July 2016
Heard on 8 and 9 March 2016
Appellants Respondent
Aidan O’Neill QC W James Wolffe QC
Laura-Anne van der Westhuizen Christine O’Neill
(Instructed by Balfour &
Manson)
(Instructed by Solicitor to
the Scottish Ministers)
Intervener (Community
Law Advice Network)
Ailsa Carmichael QC
(Instructed by Community
Law Advice Network)
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LADY HALE, LORD REED AND LORD HODGE: (with whom Lord Wilson
and Lord Hughes agree)
The background to Part 4 of the 2014 Act
1. This appeal concerns the question whether the provisions of Part 4 of the
Children and Young People (Scotland) Act 2014 lie within the legislative
competence of the Scottish Parliament. Before considering the issues that arise
(summarised in para 26 below), it is helpful to begin with an account of the
background to the legislation. A suitable starting point is the consultation paper, “A
Scotland for Children”, published by the Scottish Government in July 2012. In
general terms, two ideas underlay many of the proposals. The first was a shift away
from intervention by public authorities after a risk to children’s and young people’s
welfare had been identified, to an emphasis on early intervention to promote their
wellbeing, understood as including all the factors that could affect their
development. The second was a shift away from a legal structure under which the
duties of statutory bodies to cooperate with one another (under, for example, section
13 of the National Health Service (Scotland) Act 1978 and section 21 of the Children
(Scotland) Act 1995) were linked to the performance of their individual functions,
to ensuring that they work collaboratively and share relevant information so that “all
relevant public services can support the whole wellbeing of children and young
people” (para 73). In that regard, the consultation paper stated that it was “essential
that information is shared not only in response to a crisis or serious occurrence but,
in many cases, information should be shared about relevant changes in a child’s and
young person’s life”. There was, however, “no commonly agreed process for routine
information sharing about concerns about wellbeing” (para 110). The establishment
of a new professional role, that of named person, was proposed in order to address
those concerns (para 111).
2. On its introduction in April 2013, the Children and Young People (Scotland)
Bill was accompanied by a Policy Memorandum which was similar in content to the
consultation paper. It stated, in relation to named persons:
“They can monitor what children and young people need,
within the context of their professional responsibilities, link
with the relevant services that can help them, and be a single
point of contact for services that children and families can use,
if they wish. The named person is in a position to intervene
early to prevent difficulties escalating. The role offers a way
for children and young people to make sense of a complicated
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service environment as well as a way to prevent any problems
or challenges they are facing in their lives remaining
unaddressed due to professional service boundaries.” (para 68)
The Bill aimed to ensure that every child in Scotland had a named person (para 70).
It provided for a wide-ranging duty on all relevant public authorities to cooperate
with the named person in the conduct of their duties. This would be of particular
importance in the area of information sharing, since the “role of the named person
will depend on the successful sharing of information between relevant public
authorities” (para 73).
3. The memorandum explained that concern had been expressed about the
existing legal framework for information sharing. This was felt to be confusing and
potentially insufficient to enable the role of the named person to operate as well as
anticipated. In particular, there were concerns regarding sharing information about
children where consent was not given (para 75). The memorandum continued:
“Currently, information about a child may be shared where the
child is at a significant risk of harm. However, the role of the
named person is based on the idea that information on less
critical concerns about a child’s wellbeing must be shared if a
full picture of their wellbeing is to be put together and if action
is to be taken to prevent these concerns developing into more
serious issues. Without the necessary power to share that kind
of information, the named person will not be able to act as
effectively as is intended … Specific provisions in the Bill,
therefore, set out arrangements on information sharing, to give
professionals and named persons the power to share
information about those concerns.” (paras 76-77)
4. It appears, therefore, that one of the principal purposes of Part 4, as envisaged
at that stage, was to alter the existing law in relation to the sharing of information
about children and young people, so as to enable information about concerns about
their wellbeing, held by individual bodies, to be pooled in the hands of named
persons and shared with other bodies, with the ultimate aim of promoting their
wellbeing.
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The provisions of Part 4
5. Part 4 of the Act begins with section 19, which defines a “named person
service” as the service of making available, in relation to a child or young person,
an identified individual who is to exercise the functions listed in subsection (5):
“(a) … doing such of the following where the named person
considers it to be appropriate in order to promote, support or
safeguard the wellbeing of the child or young person –
(i) advising, informing or supporting the child or
young person, or a parent of the child or young person,
(ii) helping the child or young person, or a parent of
the child or young person, to access a service or support,
or
(iii) discussing, or raising, a matter about the child or
young person with a service provider or relevant
authority, and
(b) such other functions as are specified by this Act or any
other enactment as being functions of a named person in
relation to a child or young person.”
In relation to section 19(5)(a)(iii), the expression “service provider” is defined by
section 32 as meaning, in a context of this kind, each health board, local authority,
directing authority, and the Scottish Ministers. The expression “directing authority”
is defined by section 32 as meaning the managers of each grant-aided school, the
proprietor of each independent school, and the local authority or other person who
manages each residential establishment which comprises secure accommodation.
The expression “relevant authorities” is defined by section 31 and Schedule 2 as
including a wide variety of public bodies, including NHS 24, NHS National Services
Scotland, the Scottish Ambulance Service Board, the Scottish Sports Council, the
Scottish Police Authority, and the Scottish Fire and Rescue Service.
6. Under sections 20 and 21, responsibility for the provision of a named person
service lies with health boards in relation to all pre-school children residing within
their area, and generally with local authorities in relation to all other children
residing within their area. There are exceptions in relation to pupils at independent
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and grant-aided schools, where responsibility lies with the directing authority;
children kept in secure accommodation, where responsibility lies with the directing
authority; children kept in custody, where responsibility lies with the Ministers; and
children (as defined) who are members of the armed forces. Under section 22, named
person services must also be provided in relation to all young people over 18 who
remain at school. Responsibility for making provision for them in that situation lies
with the local authority, except in relation to young people at independent or grantaided schools, where responsibility lies with the directing authority.
7. Section 23 deals with the communication of information following a change
in the identity of the service provider in relation to a child or young person (defined
by section 32, in this context, as meaning the person whose function it is to make
arrangements for the provision of a named person service in relation to the child or
young person). That will occur, for example, when a child first goes to school, and
the service provider ceases to be the health board and becomes the local authority or
directing authority, or when a child goes from a local authority school to an
independent or grant-aided school, and the service provider ceases to be the local
authority and becomes the directing authority of the school. In terms of section
23(2)(b), the outgoing service provider must provide the incoming service provider
with:
“(i) the name and address of the child or young person and
each parent of the child or young person (so far as the outgoing
service provider has that information), and
(ii) all information which the outgoing service provider
holds which falls within subsection (3).”
Information falls within section 23(3) if the outgoing service provider considers that:
“(a) it is likely to be relevant to –
(i) the exercise by the incoming service provider of
any functions of a service provider under this Part, or
(ii) the future exercise of the named person functions
in relation to the child or young person,
(b) it ought to be provided for that purpose, and
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(c) its provision would not prejudice the conduct of a
criminal investigation or the prosecution of any offence.”
8. In considering for the purpose of section 23(3)(b) whether information ought
to be provided, the outgoing service provider is, so far as reasonably practicable, to
ascertain and have regard to the views of the child or young person, taking account
of the child’s age and maturity: section 23(4) and (5). In terms of section 23(6), the
outgoing service provider may decide for the purpose of section 23(3)(b) that
information ought to be provided only if the likely benefit to the wellbeing of the
child or young person outweighs any likely adverse effect on that wellbeing. Section
23(7) provides:
“Other than in relation to a duty of confidentiality, this section
does not permit or require the provision of information in
breach of a prohibition or restriction on the disclosure of
information arising by virtue of an enactment or rule of law.”
9. Section 24 imposes on service providers a duty to publish information about
the operation of the named person service, and to provide children and young people
and their parents with information about the arrangements for contacting named
persons. Section 25 imposes on service providers and relevant authorities a duty to
help in the exercise of named person functions.
10. Section 26 is concerned with the sharing of information, and is expressed in
similar language to section 23. It imposes two duties to disclose information, and
also confers a power. First, under section 26(1), a service provider or relevant
authority (or any person exercising a function on their behalf, such as an independent
contractor: section 26(10)) must provide to the service provider in relation to a child
or young person any information which falls within subsection (2). Information falls
within section 26(2) if the information holder considers that:
“(a) it is likely to be relevant to the exercise of the named
person functions in relation to the child or young person,
(b) it ought to be provided for that purpose, and
(c) its provision to the service provider in relation to the
child or young person would not prejudice the conduct of any
criminal investigation or the prosecution of any offence.”
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11. Secondly, under section 26(3) the service provider in relation to a child or
young person must provide to a service provider or relevant authority (or any person
exercising a function on their behalf) any information which falls within subsection
(4). Information falls within section 26(4) if the information holder considers that:
“(a) it is likely to be relevant to the exercise of any function
of the service provider or relevant authority which affects or
may affect the wellbeing of the child or young person,
(b) it ought to be provided for that purpose, and
(c) its provision to the service provider or relevant authority
would not prejudice the conduct of any criminal investigation
or the prosecution of any offence.”
In considering for the purpose of section 26(2)(b) and the corresponding provision
in section 26(4)(b) whether information ought to be provided, the information holder
is, so far as reasonably practicable, to ascertain and have regard to the views of the
child or young person, taking account of the child’s age and maturity: section 26(5)
and (6). In terms of section 26(7), the information holder may decide for the purpose
of section 26(2)(b) and (4)(b) that information ought to be provided only if the likely
benefit to the wellbeing of the child or young person outweighs any likely adverse
effect on that wellbeing.
12. Thirdly, section 26(8) confers an additional power: the service provider in
relation to a child or young person may provide to a service provider or relevant
authority any information which falls within subsection (9). Information falls within
section 26(9) if the information holder considers that its provision to the service
provider or relevant authority is necessary or expedient for the purpose of the
exercise of any of the named person functions.
13. Finally, in relation to section 26, subsection (11) provides:
“Other than in relation to a duty of confidentiality, this section
does not permit or require the provision of information in
breach of a prohibition or restriction on the disclosure of
information arising by virtue of an enactment or rule of law.”
Section 27 makes further provision in relation to the disclosure of information in
breach of a duty of confidentiality: where a person by virtue of Part 4 provides
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information in breach of such a duty and informs the recipient of that breach, the
recipient may not provide the information to another person unless its provision is
permitted or required by virtue of any enactment or rule of law.
14. Section 28 imposes a duty on local authorities, health boards, directing
authorities and relevant authorities to have regard to guidance issued by the
Ministers about the exercise of functions conferred by Part 4. Section 29 imposes a
duty on the same bodies to comply with any direction issued by the Ministers.
Section 30 confers on the Ministers a power to make provision about complaints
concerning the exercise of functions conferred by or under Part 4.
15. These provisions confirm that one of the central purposes of Part 4 is to
establish new legal powers and duties, and new administrative arrangements, in
relation to the sharing of information about children and young people, so as to
create a focal point, in the form of named persons, for the pooling and sharing of
such information, and the initiation of action to promote their wellbeing.
16. The terms in which sections 23 and 26 define the information which is subject
to those powers and duties indicate an intention that the range of information to be
shared will depend on the exercise of judgement by the information holder, and is
potentially very wide. That is consistent with the emphasis in the consultation paper
on collaborative working and routine information-sharing. Thus, under sections
23(3) and 26(2), the duty to share information does not depend on whether it is
objectively relevant or necessary that it should be shared, but on whether the
information holder considers that the information is likely to be relevant to the
exercise of the named person functions (or, as the case may be, the functions of a
service provider under Part 4): functions which are defined by section 19(5) by
reference to what the named person considers to be appropriate in order to promote,
support or safeguard wellbeing. Section 26(4)(a) is equally wide: the duty again
applies to information which the information holder considers is likely to be relevant
to the exercise of a function, and in addition the function need not be one which
actually affects the wellbeing of a child or young person, but merely one which the
information holder considers may affect their wellbeing. Section 26(9) is wider still:
the power of disclosure conferred by section 26(8) can be exercised in relation to
information whose disclosure the information holder considers to be necessary or
expedient for the purpose of the exercise of any of the named person functions.
“Wellbeing” is not defined. The only guidance as to its meaning is provided by
section 96(2), which lists eight factors to which regard is to be had when assessing
wellbeing. The factors, which are known under the acronym SHANARRI, are that
the child or young person is or would be: “safe, healthy, achieving, nurtured, active,
respected, responsible, and included”. These factors are not themselves defined, and
in some cases are notably vague: for example, that the child or young person is
“achieving” and “included”.
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17. The identification of a wellbeing need does not of itself give rise to
compulsory measures. Part 5 of the Act introduces the “child’s plan” and “targeted
interventions”. Section 33(2) defines “wellbeing need” broadly: a child has a
wellbeing need “if the child’s wellbeing is being, or is at risk of being, adversely
affected by any matter”. Where the responsible authority considers that a child has
a wellbeing need and that that need cannot be met, or met fully, without a targeted
intervention which is capable of meeting the need to some extent, it is to prepare a
child’s plan for a targeted intervention or interventions. A targeted intervention is
the provision of services for the child to meet needs which are not capable of being
fully met by the general services to children which the relevant authority provides
(section 33(4)). The child’s plan identifies the relevant authority which is to provide
the service, the manner in which it is to be provided and the outcome which the
targeted intervention is intended to achieve (section 34(1)). This does not involve
any compulsion. Further, in deciding whether a child requires a child’s plan the
responsible authority is required to consult the named person and, so far as
reasonably practicable, to ascertain and have regard to the views of the child and the
child’s parents, among others (section 33(6)).
The Scottish Government’s revised draft statutory guidance
18. Section 28(1) of the Act provides that a local authority, a health board, a
directing authority and a relevant authority must have regard to guidance issued by
the Scottish Ministers about the exercise of functions under Part 4. The Scottish
Government in performance of its duty under section 96(3) published revised draft
statutory guidance (“RDSG”) in December 2015. The RDSG is aimed at the
strategic leaders and operational managers of health boards, local authorities,
directing authorities and relevant authorities, which are responsible for operating
Parts 4, 5 and 18 of the Act. It provides that the organisations must have regard to
the guidance in carrying out those functions (para 1.2.2). It states (para 1.2.5) that
separate practice materials will be made available for practitioners. It records the
success of the pathfinder project set up in the Highland council area in 2006, which
achieved the better coordination of assessment and planning in support of children’s
needs by establishing common procedures and processes for sharing concerns about
a child (para 1.3.3). It states:
“The pathfinder brought significant improvements to children
and young people and their families, reducing the need for
statutory intervention in children’s and families’ lives by
resolving potential problems at an earlier stage.”
The improvements included greater clarity about whom families should go to when
they needed help, falls in the number of referrals to the Children’s Reporter, a
reduced number of children placed on the Child Protection Register, and the
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focussing of resources on the children who needed most support (para 1.3.3). It
records that the approach had been adopted to varying degrees across Scotland (para
1.3.4).
19. The RDSG provides a useful insight into the context in which the named
person is expected to operate. It explains that “wellbeing is multidimensional” (para
2.3.4) and that wellbeing is “a broader, more holistic concept” than welfare (para
2.3.5). It advises on the relationship between child protection and wellbeing in these
terms at para 2.3.6:
“child protection is not something which sits separately from
wellbeing. Indeed a series of low level indicators of wellbeing
need (whether obviously related or not) taken together can
amount to a child protection issue. Child protection requires
taking prompt action to safeguard a child where an assessment
indicates that the child may be at risk of significant harm. The
child’s wider wellbeing should also be assessed to ensure their
current and future holistic needs are considered.”
In para 2.4.2, it gives guidance on the interpretation of the eight wellbeing indicators
in section 96(2) as follows:
“Safe – protected from abuse, neglect or harm at home, at
school and in the community.
Healthy – having the highest attainable standards of physical
and mental health, access to suitable healthcare, and support in
learning to make healthy, safe choices.
Achieving – being supported and guided in learning and in the
development of skills, confidence and self-esteem, at home, in
school and in the community.
Nurtured – having a nurturing place to live in a family setting,
with additional help if needed, or, where this is not possible, in
a suitable care setting.
Active – having opportunities to take part in activities such as
play, recreation and sport, which contribute to healthy growth
and development, at home, in school and in the community.
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Respected – having the opportunity, along with carers, to be
heard and involved in decisions that affect them.
Responsible – having opportunities and encouragement to play
active and responsible roles at home, in school and in the
community, and where necessary, having appropriate guidance
and supervision, and being involved in decisions that affect
them.
Included – having help to overcome social, educational,
physical and economic inequalities, and being accepted as part
of the community in which they live and learn.”
20. The RDSG observes (at para 2.5.4) that the views of the child, young person
or parents may differ from the practitioner’s view of wellbeing needs and states that
“a holistic assessment should take account of all views”. It recognises that children
can thrive in different environments and counsels respect for their and their parents’
culture and beliefs (para 2.5.5). It advises that a referral to the Children’s Reporter
should be made where the wellbeing assessment reveals that a child needs
protection, guidance, treatment or control and that a compulsory supervision order
might be needed (para 2.5.6). It continues (at para 2.5.7):
“Early intervention and a compulsory supervision order are not
mutually exclusive in promoting, supporting and safeguarding
the wellbeing of a child or young person. The use of
compulsion at an early stage may help to ensure compliance
with interventions, and prevent wellbeing needs escalating.
Parental capacity and willingness to change should be
considered in order to assess whether the child’s wellbeing
needs are likely to be met by voluntary support or whether a
compulsory supervision order might be necessary.”
21. A named person, on becoming aware of a wellbeing need, should use
professional judgement in deciding how to respond. “Seeking and considering the
views of the child and parent should be a key part of the process unless doing this is
likely to be detrimental to the child’s wellbeing” (para 4.1.28).
22. The RDSG also gives guidance on the information-sharing duties contained
in sections 23, 26 and 27 of the Act. It records (para 10.1.2) that Part 4 of the Act
does not change the type of information being shared and received by service
providers and relevant authorities but expresses the view that the Act will increase
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consistency in practice which in turn is likely to mean that more information will be
shared. It advises that the Information Commissioner’s Office (ICO) Guide to Data
Protection and its Data Sharing Code of Practice should be used to support the
governance of data sharing (para 10.1.4). On article 8 of the European Convention
on Human Rights (“ECHR”) it states (para 10.3.1):
“The right to privacy in article 8 is a qualified rather than an
absolute right. Public authorities can share information if it is
lawful and proportionate to do so, but each case must be
considered carefully to assess what is lawful and proportionate
in the particular circumstances.”
23. The RDSG refers to the three tests for the sharing of information in section
26(2) and (4), namely (i) that the information is likely to be relevant to the exercise
of the functions in question, (ii) that it ought to be provided for that purpose, and
(iii) that the sharing of the information would not prejudice the conduct of a criminal
investigation or the prosecution of any offence. In its discussion of the second test
(para 10.7.4) it states:
“It is routine good practice to seek parents’ views about
information shared, unless it would be against the child’s
wishes, where they are considered capable of making that
decision, or where seeking the views of the parent may be
detrimental to the child’s wellbeing.”
It states that “in all but exceptional situations, the child or young person, and, as
appropriate, their parents” will be involved in the decision to share information (para
10.10.3) (emphasis added). It does not make the involvement of the parents a
requirement in all but exceptional circumstances. It says, without elaborating, that
there must be no other legal restrictions (paras 10.7.1 and 10.8.1). It explains the
discretionary power of a named person service provider to share information under
section 26(8) and (9) in para 10.11:
“where the named person service has identified a wellbeing
need or has been made aware of a likely wellbeing need they
have the opportunity to share information in order to explore
options for support or to make enquiries on behalf of the child,
young person or parents.”
It states in relation to this discretionary sharing of information (para 10.11.2): “Any
information shared must be legal and considered in terms of the principles and
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boundaries of data protection, human rights and children’s rights”, again without
elaboration.
24. It explains section 26(11) in these terms (paras 10.13.2 – 10.13.4):
“This sub-section of the Act permits health professionals and
others governed by a professional or common law duty of
confidentiality to legally disclose relevant information without
the information provider’s consent where disclosure of that
information has been considered and meets the tests set out in
the relevant sub-sections of section 26.
Section 26(11) does not permit or require the sharing of
information in breach of any other legal restriction such as the
[Data Protection Act 1998 (‘DPA’)], the Human Rights Act
1998, an order of the court or a decision by a Children’s
Hearing specifying non-disclosure of specific information.
In all but exceptional situations, the child or young person, and
– as appropriate – their parents, will be involved in the decision
to share information and will be told what information has been
shared in breach of a duty of confidentiality.” (emphasis added)
25. Finally, the RDSG’s guidance on section 27 (disclosure of information
provided in breach of confidentiality) is as follows (para 10.14.2):
“If the person receiving the information believes it is necessary
to share all or part of it in order to promote, support or
safeguard the child’s wellbeing, then the considerations in
section 26 must be applied. This would include taking into
account the child’s views and understanding the likely effect of
sharing on the child’s wellbeing. Other legal requirements must
also be considered, including the DPA and the child’s right to
private and family life under article 8 of the ECHR. Decisions
to share information in these situations will need to be
evidenced, and the rationale recorded.” (emphasis added)
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The challenges to legislative competence
26. Section 29(1) of the Scotland Act 1998 provides that an Act of the Scottish
Parliament is not law so far as any provision of the Act is outside its legislative
competence. In terms of section 29(2), a provision is outside its competence so far
as any of the following paragraphs apply. Paragraph (b) applies where the provision
“relates to reserved matters”. We address that challenge in section I (paras 27 to 66
below). Paragraph (d) applies where the provision “is incompatible with any of the
Convention rights or with EU law.” We address the Convention rights challenge and
comment briefly on the EU law challenge in sections II and III (paras 67 to 105
below).
I The reserved matters challenge
27. The appellants are four registered charities with an interest in family matters
and three individual parents. They challenge the lawfulness of the data sharing and
retention provisions in the Act on the ground that they relate to reserved matters,
with the consequence that section 29(2)(b) of the Scotland Act applies. They have
focused on sections 26 and 27 of the 2014 Act, but their arguments apply also in
relation to section 23(2). In terms of section 29(3) of the Scotland Act, the question
whether a provision relates to a reserved matter is to be determined (subject to
subsection (4), which has no bearing on the present case) “by reference to the
purpose of the provision, having regard (among other things) to its effect in all the
circumstances”.
28. Section 30 of the Scotland Act gives effect to Schedule 5, in which reserved
matters are defined. In particular, paragraph 1 of Part II of Schedule 5 provides that
the matters to which the Sections in that Part apply are reserved matters. As was
pointed out by Lord Hope in Imperial Tobacco Ltd v Lord Advocate [2012] UKSC
61; 2013 SC (UKSC) 153, in a judgment with which the other members of the court
agreed, the matters listed have a common theme:
“It is that matters in which the United Kingdom as a whole has
an interest should continue to be the responsibility of the UK
Parliament at Westminster. They include matters which are
affected by its treaty obligations and matters that are designed
to ensure that there is a single market within the United
Kingdom for the free movement of goods and services.” (para
29)
Amongst the matters listed in Schedule 5 is Section B2:
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“B2. Data protection
The subject-matter of –
(a) the Data Protection Act 1998, and
(b) Council Directive 95/46/EC (protection of
individuals with regard to the processing of
personal data and on the free movement of such
data).”
Paragraph 5 of Part III of Schedule 5 provides that references in the schedule to the
subject-matter of any enactment are to be read as references to the subject-matter of
that enactment as it had effect on the principal appointed day, which was 1 July
1999. It is therefore the version of the Data Protection Act (“DPA”) which was in
force on that date which is relevant.
29. This court has had to apply section 29(2)(b) and (3) on a number of occasions,
and the approach to be adopted is now well established. In Martin v Most [2010]
UKSC 10; 2010 SC (UKSC) 40, para 49, Lord Walker said that the expression
“relates to” was
“familiar in this sort of context, indicating more than a loose or
consequential connection, and the language of section 29(3),
referring to a provision’s purpose and effect, reinforces that.”
That approach was endorsed by Lord Hope in Imperial Tobacco (para 16).
30. Whether a provision “relates to” a reserved matter, in the sense explained by
Lord Walker, is determined by reference to the purpose of the provision in question.
That purpose is to be ascertained having regard to the effect of the provision,
amongst other relevant matters. As was said in relation to the similar provisions in
the Government of Wales Act 2006 in In re Agricultural Sector (Wales) Bill [2014]
UKSC 43; [2014] 1 WLR 2622, para 50:
“As the section requires the purpose of the provision to be
examined it is necessary to look not merely at what can be
discerned from an objective consideration of the effect of its
terms.”
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31. Determining the purpose of a provision may not be an easy matter. For
example, must a single predominant purpose be identified, or will the provision
relate to a reserved matter provided one purpose which can properly be attributed to
it justifies that conclusion? That question was considered, obiter, by Lord Hope in
Imperial Tobacco. The legislation in issue imposed restrictions upon the advertising
and sale of tobacco products, and was challenged as relating to reserved matters,
namely consumer protection and product safety. Lord Hope stated:
“I do not see this as a case which gives rise to the problem
which may need to be dealt with if the provision in question
has two or more purposes, one of which relates to a reserved
matter. In such a situation the fact that one of its purposes
relates to a reserved matter will mean that the provision is
outside competence, unless the purpose can be regarded as
consequential and thus of no real significance when regard is
had to what the provision overall seeks to achieve.” (para 43)
32. This approach should not be confused with the “pith and substance” test
developed to resolve problems in a number of federal systems, to which the Court
of Session referred in the present case. Although in Martin v Most Lord Hope
mentioned cases applying that test as forming part of the background to the scheme
applied in the Scotland Act, he went on to point out that the phrase did not appear
in the Act, and that the rules which had to be applied were those laid down in the
Act (para 15). In Imperial Tobacco, Lord Hope emphasised the latter point:
“[T]he intention was that it was to the 1998 Act itself, not to
decisions as to how the problem was handled in other
jurisdictions, that one should look for guidance. So it is to the
rules that the 1998 Act lays down that the court must address
its attention.” (para 13)
So, in the present case, the Second Division’s finding that the pith and substance of
the 2014 Act are child protection does not answer the question whether any of its
provisions relate to the subject-matter of the DPA and Directive 95/46/EC (“the
Directive”).
33. It is necessary only to add that the question whether a provision of an Act of
the Scottish Parliament relates to a reserved matter is different from the question
whether such a provision modifies the law on reserved matters. The latter question
is addressed by section 29(2)(c) of the Scotland Act and Schedule 4, paragraph 2.
Page 17
The subject-matter of the Directive
34. The Directive was made under article 100a of the EC Treaty, which
authorises measures for the harmonisation of national laws with the aim of achieving
the internal market. The subject-matter of the Directive is described in general terms
in its title: it is a directive “on the protection of individuals with regard to the
processing of personal data, and the free movement of such data”. The link between
these two subjects is explained in the recitals. In particular, recital 7 states that “the
difference in levels of protection of the rights and freedoms of individuals, notably
the right to privacy, with regard to the processing of personal data afforded in the
member states may … constitute an obstacle to the pursuit of a number of economic
activities at Community level, distort competition and impede authorities in the
discharge of their responsibilities under Community law.” The recital continues by
noting that “this difference in levels of protection is due to the existence of a wide
variety of national laws, regulations and administrative provisions”. Accordingly,
recital 8 states that “in order to remove the obstacles to flows of personal data, the
level of protection of the rights and freedoms of individuals with regard to the
processing of such data must be equivalent in all member states”. The intended
result, as recital 9 states, is that “given the equivalent protection resulting from the
approximation of national laws, the member states will no longer be able to inhibit
the free movement between them of personal data on grounds relating to protection
of the rights and freedoms of individuals, and in particular the right to privacy”. The
scope of application of the Directive is not, however, restricted to situations
involving free movement: Bodil Lindquist (Case C-101/01) [2003] ECR I-12971,
paras 40-44.
35. Turning to the substantive articles of the Directive, Chapter I sets out general
provisions. In particular, article 1 defines the twofold object of the Directive:
“1. In accordance with this Directive, member states shall
protect the fundamental rights and freedoms of natural persons,
and in particular their right to privacy with respect to the
processing of personal data.
2. Member states shall neither restrict nor prohibit the free
flow of personal data between member states for reasons
connected with the protection afforded under paragraph 1.”
36. Article 2 defines certain terms, and article 3 describes the scope of the
Directive. In terms of article 3(1), it applies to “the processing of personal data
wholly or partly by automatic means, and to the processing otherwise than by
automatic means of personal data which form part of a filing system or are intended
Page 18
to form part of a filing system.” “Personal data” is defined by article 2(a) as meaning
“any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (‘data
subject’)”. “Processing of personal data” is defined by article 2(b) as meaning “any
operation or set of operations which is performed upon personal data, whether or
not by automatic means, such as collection, recording, organization, storage,
adaptation or alteration, retrieval, consultation, use, disclosure by transmission,
dissemination or otherwise making available, alignment or combination, blocking,
erasure or destruction”. Article 3(2) lists certain circumstances in which the
Directive is not to apply. It has not been argued that any of those circumstances
applies in the present case.
37. Chapter II sets out general rules on the lawfulness of the processing of
personal data. Article 5 requires member states, within the limits of the provisions
of that Chapter, to determine more precisely the conditions under which the
processing of personal data is lawful. Article 6 sets out five general principles,
somewhat misleadingly described as “principles relating to data quality”, to which
member states must give effect. For example, the second principle is that personal
data must be “collected for specified, explicit and legitimate purposes and not further
processed in a way incompatible with those purposes”. Article 7 sets out six general
conditions, described as “criteria for making data processing legitimate”, which
member states must apply to the processing of personal data, so that at least one of
the conditions is satisfied. Article 8 sets out particular rules in relation to the
processing of what are described as special categories of data, including data
revealing racial or ethnic origins, and data concerning health or sex life. Article 8(1)
requires member states to prohibit the processing of such data. The remaining
paragraphs of article 8 then disapply article 8(1) in a number of specified
circumstances, to which it will be necessary to return.
38. Articles 10 and 11 require member states to provide that the data controller
must provide the data subject with information about the processing of his personal
data. Article 12 requires member states to guarantee certain rights of data subjects
in relation to data controllers. Article 13 permits member states to adopt legislation
restricting the scope of certain of these rights and obligations where specified
conditions are met. Article 14 requires member states to grant the data subject the
right to object to the processing of his personal data in certain circumstances. Most
of the remaining provisions of Chapter II are concerned with the regulation of data
controllers. Chapter III is concerned with judicial remedies, liability, and sanctions.
Chapter IV is concerned with the transfer of personal data to third countries. Chapter
V is concerned with codes of conduct, and Chapter VI with the establishment of
national supervisory authorities and of an EU working party. Finally, Chapter VII is
concerned with Community implementing measures.
39. Put shortly, therefore, the Directive was designed to harmonise the laws of
the member states relating to the protection of individuals’ interests in relation to
Page 19
the use of their personal data. Its provisions specify the standards of protection
which the laws of the member states must afford, and the methods by which those
standards are to be secured and enforced.
The subject-matter of the DPA
40. The DPA is the measure implementing the Directive in the UK. One would
therefore expect its subject-matter to be the same as that of the Directive, and so it
proves. The subject-matter of the DPA is described in general terms in its short title:
“the regulation of the processing of information relating to individuals, including
the obtaining, holding, use or disclosure of such information”.
41. Part I of the DPA defines some of the critical terms, broadly following the
definitions in the Directive. Part I also contains some other fundamental provisions
of the DPA. Section 4 imposes on a data controller an obligation to comply with the
data protection principles set out in Part I of Schedule 1, to which it will be necessary
to return. Section 6 establishes the office of Information Commissioner, known in
1999 (cf para 28 above) as the Data Protection Commissioner. Part II of the DPA
confers various rights on individuals relating to information concerning themselves,
including rights to access personal data (section 7), to prevent processing which is
likely to cause damage or distress (section 10), and to apply for the rectification or
destruction of inaccurate data (section 14). Part III contains provisions relating to
the regulation of data controllers by the Commissioner. Part IV makes provision for
exemptions from the data protection principles, and from Parts II and III. Part V
concerns enforcement by the Commissioner, and Part VI contains miscellaneous and
general provisions.
42. It is apparent that the DPA is intended to secure equivalent standards of
protection of the rights of individuals in relation to the processing of personal data
throughout the UK, and equivalent methods of securing and enforcing those
standards. That is as one would expect, given the aims of the Directive. Accordingly,
the DPA applies to data controllers throughout the UK: section 5. It establishes a
single regulatory authority for the whole of the UK: section 6. (Somewhat
confusingly, a separate Scottish Information Commissioner exercises functions
under the Freedom of Information (Scotland) Act 2002, but has no regulatory role
in relation to data protection). The Commissioner is the designated authority in the
UK for the purposes of the 1981 Council of Europe Convention for the Protection
of Individuals with regard to Automatic Processing of Personal Data, and is also the
supervisory authority in the UK for the purposes of the Directive: section 54(1). He
is accountable to the UK Parliament, and must lay before it reports and codes of
practice: section 52. His accounts are examined by the Comptroller and Auditor
General: Schedule 5, Part I, paragraph 10. His power to issue codes of practice is
exercisable as directed by the Secretary of State: section 51(3). The powers to make
Page 20
orders, regulations and rules under the DPA are exercisable only by the Secretary of
State, and only by means of a statutory instrument approved by the UK Parliament:
see, for example, sections 30, 38, 54, 64 and 67. The power to designate codes of
practice, for the purpose of exemptions relating to journalism, literature and art, is
similarly conferred on the Secretary of State: section 32(3). Appeals under the DPA
lie to the First-tier and Upper Tribunals (in 1999, to the Data Protection Tribunal)
throughout the UK: section 70(1).
43. The DPA allows scope for derogation from certain of its requirements by
enactments either of the UK Parliament or of the Scottish Parliament. An example
relevant to the present case, to which it will be necessary to return, is section 35(1),
under which personal data are exempt from certain provisions relating to the
disclosure of information where the disclosure is required by or under any
“enactment”, an expression which is defined by section 70(1) as including any
enactment comprised in, or in any instrument made under, an Act of the Scottish
Parliament.
44. Put shortly, therefore, the DPA was designed to implement the Directive by
establishing standards of protection of individuals’ interests in relation to the use of
their personal data, and methods by which those standards are to be secured and
enforced, which are equivalent in effect throughout the UK. In particular, it imposes
obligations on data controllers in relation to the processing of data, and creates rights
on the part of data subjects. It also creates a system for the regulation of data
controllers by the Commissioner. It allows scope, however, for derogation from
certain of its requirements by legislation which need not be UK-wide in application.
The effect of Part 4 of the 2014 Act in relation to the DPA
45. The bodies described in Part 4 of the 2014 Act as service providers, relevant
authorities and directing authorities are currently subject, prior to the entry into force
of that Act, to a variety of legal duties in relation to the disclosure of information,
including duties imposed by the DPA. In particular, as mentioned earlier, section 4
of that Act imposes on a data controller an obligation to comply with the data
protection principles set out in Part I of Schedule 1. Those principles include the
following:
“1. Personal data shall be processed fairly and lawfully and,
in particular, shall not be processed unless –
(a) at least one of the conditions in Schedule 2 is met,
and
Page 21
(b) in the case of sensitive personal data, at least one
of the conditions in Schedule 3 is also met.
2. Personal data shall be obtained only for one or more
specified and lawful purposes, and shall not be further
processed in any manner incompatible with that purpose or
those purposes.
3. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant and not
excessive in relation to the purpose or purposes for which they
are processed.”
Section 2 of the DPA defines “sensitive personal data” as including (amongst other
matters) information as to a person’s racial or ethnic origins, his physical or mental
health or condition, his sexual life, or the commission or alleged commission by him
of any offence.
46. Those principles are supplemented by the provisions of Part II of Schedule 1
to the DPA, which indicate how they are to be interpreted. For example, Part II
contains provisions specifying circumstances in which a data subject is to be
provided with information, and the nature of that information, in order for the data
to be regarded as having been processed fairly for the purposes of the first principle.
47. In relation to the conditions referred to in the first principle, Schedule 2 sets
out the following conditions, so far as material to the present case:
“1. The data subject has given his consent to the processing.

3. The processing is necessary for compliance with any
legal obligation to which the data controller is subject, other
than an obligation imposed by contract.
4. The processing is necessary in order to protect the vital
interests of the data subject.
5. The processing is necessary –
Page 22

(b) for the exercise of any functions conferred on any
person by or under any enactment …
6. (1) The processing is necessary for the purposes of
legitimate interests pursued by the data controller or by the
third party or parties to whom the data are disclosed, except
where the processing is unwarranted in any particular case by
reason of prejudice to the rights and freedoms or legitimate
interests of the data subject.”
48. It follows from those conditions that, prior to the entry into force of the 2014
Act, a data controller in Scotland can disclose information about a child or young
person without her consent (assuming, in the case of a statutory body, that the
disclosure is otherwise within its powers), if the disclosure is necessary to protect
her vital interests (condition 4), a test which requires more than that it is likely to
benefit her wellbeing; or if the disclosure is necessary for the exercise of a statutory
function (condition 5(b)), but not merely because it considers that the information is
likely to be relevant to the exercise of that function. The data controller is also, of
course, obliged to comply with the other data protection principles so far as relevant,
and with any requirements arising from Part II of Schedule 1. In particular, it is
required to comply with the third data protection principle, in terms of which
personal data must be relevant (and not merely considered by the data controller to
be likely to be relevant) in relation to the purpose or purposes for which they are
processed.
49. In relation to sensitive data, Schedule 3 sets out the following additional
conditions, so far as material:
“1. The data subject has given his explicit consent to the
processing of the personal data.

3. The processing is necessary –
(a) in order to protect the vital interests of the data
subject or another person, in a case where –
Page 23
(i) consent cannot be given by or on behalf of
the data subject, or
(ii) the data controller cannot reasonably be
expected to obtain the consent of the data subject,
or
(b) in order to protect the vital interests of another
person, in a case where consent by or on behalf of the
data subject has been unreasonably withheld.

7. (1) The processing is necessary –

(b) for the exercise of any functions conferred on any
person by or under an enactment …
8. The processing is necessary for medical purposes and is
undertaken by –
(a) a health professional, or
(b) a person who in the circumstances owes a duty of
confidentiality which is equivalent to that which would
arise if that person were a health professional.”
50. It follows from those conditions that, prior to the entry into force of the 2014
Act, a data controller in Scotland of sensitive data can disclose information about
the health or sexual life of a child or young person, without his or her explicit consent
(assuming, in the case of a statutory body, that the disclosure is otherwise within its
powers), if the disclosure is necessary in order to protect his or her vital interests
(and not merely because it is likely to benefit her wellbeing) and, in addition, it is
either impossible for him or her to give consent or the data controller cannot
reasonably be expected to obtain it (condition 3). The information can also be
disclosed if its disclosure is necessary for the exercise of a statutory function
Page 24
(condition 7(1)(b)), but not merely because the data controller considers that the
information is likely be relevant to the exercise of that function. It can also be
disclosed for medical purposes, but only where a duty of confidentiality is owed
(condition 8): a requirement which gives rise to a difficulty (not discussed in this
appeal) where disclosure is liable to be made under Part 4 of the 2014 Act, since
sections 23(7) and 26(11) of the 2014 Act override duties of confidentiality. It is in
addition necessary to comply with the other data protection principles, and with any
requirements arising from Part II of Schedule 1.
51. The effect of Part 4 of the 2014 Act on the requirements of the DPA is
extremely complex. Numerous difficult questions are liable to arise, which were not
discussed in detail, if at all, in the present appeal. A sufficient idea of the effect of
Part 4 can, however, be obtained to enable the issue arising in relation to reserved
matters to be determined.
52. It may be helpful to explain at the outset that much of the difficulty arises
from sections 23(7) and 26(11) of the 2014 Act, in terms of which sections 23 and
26 do not permit or authorise the provision of information in breach of a prohibition
or restriction on its disclosure arising by virtue of an enactment or rule of law (other
than in relation to a duty of confidentiality). This means that the powers and duties
of disclosure set out in sections 23 and 26 cannot be taken at face value. To the
extent that their terms may be inconsistent with the requirements of the DPA, they
have no effect. The DPA itself, however, contains provisions which confer
exemptions from some of its requirements where they are inconsistent with another
enactment, or which treat some of its requirements as satisfied where disclosure is
necessary for compliance with a statutory obligation. In these circumstances, it is
necessary for anyone wanting to understand the effect of sections 23 and 26 on the
disclosure of information to have the 2014 Act in one hand and the DPA in the other,
to determine the priority which their provisions have vis-à-vis one another
notwithstanding the logical puzzle created by sections 23(7) and 26(11) of the 2014
Act when read with the DPA, and to try, by cross-reference, to work out their
cumulative effect.
53. One potentially significant effect follows from section 35(1) of the DPA, in
terms of which personal data are exempt from the non-disclosure provisions where
the disclosure is “required” by or under any enactment. A provision of an Act of the
Scottish Parliament is an enactment for this purpose: section 70(1). The nondisclosure provisions are defined by section 27(3) of the DPA as meaning the
provisions specified in section 27(4) of that Act, to the extent to which they are
inconsistent with the disclosure in question. Those provisions are the first data
protection principle, except to the extent to which it requires compliance with the
conditions in Schedules 2 and 3, the second, third, fourth and fifth data protection
principles, section 10 (the right to prevent processing likely to cause damage or
distress) and section 14(1) to (3) (the rectification, blocking, erasure and destruction
Page 25
of data). Sections 23(2), 26(1) and 26(3) of the 2014 Act require the disclosure of
personal data, subject to sections 23(7) and 26(11). Accordingly, if those provisions
are within devolved competence, and if the logical puzzle as to whether section
35(1) of the DPA prevails over sections 23(7) and 26(11) of the 2014 Act is resolved
in favour of section 35(1) (a point which was not the subject of argument in this
appeal, but was the implicit basis on which the arguments proceeded), then it follows
that disclosure as required by sections 23 and 26 is exempt from the non-disclosure
provisions, as defined, to the extent that the non-disclosure provisions are
inconsistent with the disclosure.
54. For example, the third data protection principle is inconsistent with the
disclosure required by sections 23(2), 26(1) and 26(3) of the 2014 Act, since those
provisions require disclosure of information which is considered by the data
processor to be “likely to be relevant”, whereas the third principle requires any
personal data disclosed to be “relevant”, as well as adequate and not excessive in
relation to the purpose or purposes for which they are processed. On the other hand,
the fifth principle (that data processed for any purpose or purposes shall not be kept
for longer than is necessary for that purpose or those purposes) is not inconsistent
with sections 23 and 26 of the 2014 Act, and therefore continues to apply. The duties
of disclosure imposed by sections 23 and 26 remain subject to numerous other
provisions of the DPA, including the first data protection principle, to the extent to
which it requires compliance with the conditions in Schedules 2 and 3. The power
conferred by section 26(8) of the 2014 Act, on the other hand, does not “require”
disclosure, and therefore cannot benefit from the exemption conferred by section
35(1) of the DPA.
55. The discussion in this appeal focused on only one aspect of the complex interrelationship between Part 4 of the 2014 Act and the DPA, namely the question
whether disclosure in accordance with the duties imposed by Part 4 of the 2014 Act
would comply with the conditions imposed by Schedules 2 and 3 to the DPA. It was
argued on behalf of the Ministers that conditions 3 and 5(b) in Schedule 2, and
condition 7(1)(b) in Schedule 3, would be met. Condition 3 is satisfied where the
processing “is necessary for compliance with any legal obligation to which the data
controller is subject, other than an obligation imposed by contract”. Condition 5(b)
in Schedule 2, and condition 7(1)(b) in Schedule 3, are satisfied where the
processing “is necessary … for the exercise of any functions conferred on any person
by or under any [or an] enactment”.
56. The imposition of a statutory duty of disclosure by sections 23(2), 26(1) and
26(3) of the 2014 Act has the consequence that condition 3 in Schedule 2 to the DPA
is satisfied. The terms in which that duty is imposed do not, on the other hand, meet
the requirements of condition 5(b) in Schedule 2 and condition 7(1)(b) in Schedule
3. In each case, the data controller is required by the 2014 Act to disclose personal
data to a third party if he “considers” that the data are “likely to be relevant” to the
Page 26
exercise of certain statutory functions by the third party and “ought to be provided
for that purpose”. The test imposed by condition 5(b) in Schedule 2 and condition
7(1)(b) in Schedule 3 to the DPA requires that disclosure must be “necessary” for
the exercise of statutory functions (which must again refer to the functions of the
person to whom the disclosure is made, given that section 35(1), read with section
27, requires that a data processor who is under a statutory duty to make the
disclosure must comply with Schedules 2 and 3: a requirement which would be
pointless if it were met ex hypothesi). The meaning of “necessary” was considered
by this court in South Lanarkshire Council v Scottish Information Comr [2013]
UKSC 55; 2014 SC (UKSC) 1; [2013] 1 WLR 2421. As was explained there at paras
25-27, it is an expression whose meaning depends on the context in which it falls to
be applied. Where the disclosure of information constitutes an interference with
rights protected by article 8 of the ECHR, as in the present context (as explained at
paras 75-77 below), the requirement that disclosure is “necessary” forms part of a
proportionality test: the disclosure must involve the least interference with the right
to respect for private and family life which is required for the achievement of the
legitimate aim pursued. Disclosure where the data processor considers that the
information is likely to be relevant cannot be regarded as necessary if the legitimate
aim could be achieved by something less. It cannot be “necessary”, in that sense, to
disclose information merely on the ground that it is objectively relevant, let alone
on the ground that a particular body considers that it is likely to be relevant.
Relevance is a relatively low threshold: information may be relevant but of little
significance. A test of potential relevance fails to recognise the need to weigh the
importance of the disclosure in achieving a legitimate aim against the importance of
the interference with the individual’s right to respect for her private and family life.
That deficiency is not made good by the requirement that the data controller
considers that the information ought to be provided. It will be necessary to return to
the question of proportionality when we consider the challenge to the legislation
under article 8.
57. So far as the power conferred by section 26(8) is concerned, a data controller
“may” disclose information to a third party if he “considers” that to do so is
“necessary or expedient” for the purpose of the exercise of any of the named person
functions. Those conditions are less demanding than any of the conditions in
Schedules 2 and 3 to the DPA that are relied on by the Ministers. Condition 3 in
Schedule 2 is not satisfied, since the disclosure does not have to be necessary for
compliance with any legal obligation imposed on the data controller. Condition 5(b)
in Schedule 2, and condition 7(1)(b) in Schedule 3, are not satisfied, since the
processing does not have to be necessary for the exercise of any of the named person
functions. Nor is the third data protection principle met, since there is no requirement
that the information should be relevant.
58. The first data protection principle is therefore complied with, in so far as the
duties of disclosure imposed by Part 4 of the 2014 Act apply to non-sensitive data,
Page 27
but not in so far as they apply to sensitive data or in so far as Part 4 confers a power
to disclose information rather than imposing a duty. Sections 23(7) and 26(11)
therefore apply, with the consequence that the duties imposed by sections 23(2),
26(1) and 26(3) in respect of sensitive data, and the power conferred by section 26(8)
in respect of data of all kinds, cannot be taken at face value. Instead, the duties
imposed by sections 23(2), 26(1) and 26(3) in respect of sensitive data must be
understood as being conditional upon compliance with at least one of the conditions
in Schedule 3 to the DPA, and therefore as being subject to more stringent criteria
than those which appear on the face of the 2014 Act. The power conferred by section
26(8) must likewise be understood as being conditional upon compliance with at
least one of the conditions in Schedule 2 to the DPA, and also, if the information in
question is sensitive data, upon compliance with at least one of the conditions in
Schedule 3. In addition, it is subject to compliance with the requirements arising in
relation to the first data protection principle under Part II of Schedule 1 to the DPA,
and also to compliance with the other data protection principles and the other duties
imposed by the DPA.
The effect of Part 4 of the 2014 Act in relation to the Directive
59. As explained earlier, the Directive requires member states to establish a
number of principles relating to the processing of data, which find their counterpart
in the data protection principles laid down in the DPA. The principles set out in the
Directive are complex and raise numerous issues of interpretation, like their UK
counterparts. For present purposes, it is sufficient to focus on the provisions
corresponding to Schedules 2 and 3 to the DPA.
60. As explained earlier, article 7 sets out six general criteria which member
states must apply to the processing of personal data, so that at least one of the criteria
is satisfied. The criteria which the Ministers maintain are satisfied by the terms of
Part 4 of the 2014 Act are the following:
“(c) processing is necessary for compliance with a legal
obligation to which the controller is subject; or

(e) processing is necessary for the performance of a task
carried out in the public interest or in the exercise of official
authority vested in the controller or in a third party to whom
the data are disclosed.”
Page 28
These criteria are almost identical to those set out in conditions 3 and 5(b) in
Schedule 2 to the DPA. For the reasons explained earlier, sections 23(2), 26(1) and
26(3) meet the requirements of criterion (c), but section 26(8) does not meet the
requirements of any of the criteria.
61. As explained earlier, article 8(2) permits specified exemptions from the
general prohibition imposed by article 8(1) on the processing of personal data
revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical
beliefs, trade-union membership, and the processing of data concerning health or
sex life. The exemptions, so far as potentially relevant, are as follows:
“(a) the data subject has given his explicit consent to the
processing of those data, except where the laws of the member
state provide that the prohibition referred to in paragraph 1 may
not be lifted by the data subject’s giving his consent; or

(c) processing is necessary to protect the vital interests of
the data subject or of another person where the data subject is
physically or legally incapable of giving his consent.”
Article 8(3) disapplies the prohibition in article 8(1) where
“processing of the data is required for the purposes of
preventive medicine, medical diagnosis, the provision of care
or treatment or the management of health-care services, and
where those data are processed by a health professional subject
… to the obligation of professional secrecy or by another person
also subject to an equivalent obligation of secrecy.”
Article 8(4) of the Directive permits member states to lay down additional
exemptions for reasons of substantial public interest, subject to the provision of
suitable safeguards. Any such additional exemptions must be notified to the
Commission.
62. Sections 23(2) and 26(1), (3) and (8) of the 2014 Act do not meet the
requirements of the exemptions in article 8(2). The provisions of Part 4 of the 2014
Act have not been notified to the Commission, and it is not suggested that there has
been any other relevant notification. Nor has it been argued that the provisions of
Page 29
Part 4 would meet the other requirements of article 8(4). It follows for this reason
also that, applying sections 23(7) and 26(11), sections 23 and 26 cannot be taken at
face value. The performance of the powers and duties created by those provisions,
in respect of data falling within the scope of article 8, must be understood as being
permissible only where either one of the exemptions listed in article 8(2) applies, or
the processing falls within the scope of article 8(3).
Discussion
63. Does it follow, for the purposes of Section B2 of Schedule 5 to the Scotland
Act, that any of the provisions of Part 4 of the 2014 Act relate to the subject-matter
of the DPA and the Directive? The fact that a provision of an Act of the Scottish
Parliament requires or authorises the disclosure of personal data does not in itself
mean that the provision is outside legislative competence: as explained earlier, the
DPA envisages in section 35(1), read with section 70(1), that the disclosure of
personal data may be required by an enactment comprised in an Act of the Scottish
Parliament. In view of that provision, the Scotland Act cannot sensibly be
interpreted as meaning that an enactment “relates to” the subject-matter of the DPA,
and is therefore outside the powers of the Scottish Parliament, merely because it
requires or authorises the disclosure of personal data. On the other hand, an
enactment does not have to modify the DPA in order to relate to the subject-matter
of that Act. That follows from the distinction between section 29(2)(b) and (c) of
the Scotland Act. The question whether an enactment relates to the subject-matter
of the DPA and the Directive has to be decided by following the approach described
in paras 29 to 31 above.
64. Following that approach, it was argued on behalf of the Ministers that the
purpose of Part 4 is to promote the wellbeing of children and young people, and that
the provisions concerning the processing of personal data are merely consequential
upon, or incidental to, that purpose. It is true that the ultimate aim of Part 4 is to
promote the wellbeing of children and young people. Its more specific objective is
to alter the institutional arrangements, and the legal structure of powers and duties,
governing cooperation between the different agencies which deal with children and
young people, so that they work collaboratively, with the named person playing a
coordinating role. That objective reflects the concern, noted in the background
material to the 2014 Act, that a weakness in the existing arrangements was that
information was not shared until the stage had been reached where a child or young
person was at risk of harm. Part 4 is designed to address that concern by ensuring
that information is shared between the relevant agencies, and acted on where
appropriate, before that stage is reached. Accordingly, although Part 4 contains
provisions whose objective is to ensure that information relating to children and
young people is shared, that objective is not truly distinct from the overall purpose
of promoting their wellbeing, but can be regarded as consequential upon it.
Page 30
65. It is also important to bear in mind the central aim of the provisions in the
Scotland Act concerning reserved matters, explained at para 28 above: that matters
in which the UK as a whole has an interest should continue to be the responsibility
of the UK Parliament. As explained at para 44 above, the DPA deals with matters in
which the UK as a whole has an interest, because it implements the Directive, in
accordance with the UK’s treaty obligations, by establishing standards of protection
of individuals’ interests in relation to the use of their personal data, and methods by
which those standards are to be secured and enforced, which are equivalent in effect
throughout the UK. But it also, in section 35 and elsewhere, leaves scope for
derogation from certain of its requirements by the UK Parliament and by the Scottish
Parliament. To the extent that Part 4 of the 2014 Act affects the way in which the
data protection regime under the DPA applies to matters falling within its scope, that
possibility is contemplated by the DPA itself, in section 35. Part 4 does not detract
from the regime established by the DPA and the Directive, even if that is only by
reason of the fail-safe provisions of sections 23(7) and 26(11).
66. For these reasons, we are not persuaded that the provisions of Part 4 relate to
the subject-matter of the DPA and the Directive.
II The human rights challenge
67. The appellants challenge the compulsory appointment of a named person as
a breach of the rights of the parents of children under article 8 of the ECHR. Article
8 provides:
“1. Everyone has the right to respect for his private and
family life, his home and his correspondence.
2. There shall be no interference by a public authority with
the exercise of this right except such as is in accordance with
the law and is necessary in a democratic society in the interests
of national security, public safety or the economic wellbeing of
the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the
protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights
and freedoms of others.”
68. The appellants’ challenge proceeds on both a broad basis and a narrower
basis. The broad challenge is that the compulsory appointment of a named person to
a child involves a breach of the parents’ article 8 rights unless the parents have
consented to the appointment or the appointment is necessary to protect the child
from significant harm. The narrower challenge focusses on the provisions in sections
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26 and 27 for the sharing of information about a child. Before the Inner House, the
appellants’ narrower challenge, as recorded by the Lord Justice Clerk, raised article
8 of the ECHR but concentrated on EU law. That was also the appellants’ focus in
this court.
69. The intervener, Community Law Advice Network, challenges only the
information sharing provisions, arguing that they impose too low a threshold for the
disclosure of confidential information and amount to an infringement of the article
8 rights of children and young people. As a result there was more focus on article 8
of the ECHR in the narrower challenge than there had been in the debates both in
the Inner House and before the Lord Ordinary.
70. In our view these challenges raise the following four questions: (i) what are
the interests which article 8 of ECHR protects in this context, (ii) whether and in
what respects the operation of the Act interferes with the article 8 rights of parents
or of children and young people, (iii) whether that interference is in accordance with
the law, and (iv) whether that interference is proportionate, having regard to the
legitimate aim pursued.
(i) The interests protected by article 8
71. In the context of this legislation, the interests protected by article 8 include
both family life and privacy. The relationship between parent and child is an integral
part of family life. As the European Court of Human Rights (“ECtHR”) stated in,
among others, Olsson v Sweden (No 1) (1988) 11 EHRR 259, “[t]he mutual
enjoyment by parent and child of each other’s company constitutes a fundamental
element of family life” (para 59). Family life also encompasses a broad range of
parental rights and responsibilities with regard to the care and upbringing of minor
children, enabling parents to take important decisions on their behalf, and article 8
protects the rights of parents to exercise such parental authority: Nielsen v Denmark
(1988) 11 EHRR 175, para 61.
72. As is well known, it is proper to look to international instruments, such as the
UN Convention on the Rights of the Child 1989 (“UNCRC”), as aids to the
interpretation of the ECHR. The Preamble to the UNCRC states:
“the family, as the fundamental group of society and the natural
environment for the growth and wellbeing of all its members
and particularly children, should be afforded the necessary
protection and assistance so that it can fully assume its
responsibilities within the community.”
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Many articles in the UNCRC acknowledge that it is the right and responsibility of
parents to bring up their children. Thus article 3(2) requires States Parties, in their
actions to protect a child’s wellbeing, to take into account the rights and duties of
his or her parents or other individuals legally responsible for him or her; article 5
requires States Parties to respect the responsibilities, rights and duties of parents or,
where applicable, other family or community members or others legally responsible
for the child to provide appropriate direction and guidance to the child in the exercise
of his or her rights under the Convention; article 14(2) makes similar provision in
relation to the child’s right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion; article
27(2) emphasises that the parents have the primary responsibility to secure, within
their abilities and financial capabilities, the conditions of living necessary for the
child’s development; article 18(1) provides that:
“States Parties shall use their best efforts to ensure recognition
of the principle that both parents have common responsibilities
for the upbringing and development of the child. Parents or, as
the case may be, legal guardians, have the primary
responsibility for the upbringing and development of the child.
The best interests of the child will be their basic concern.”
(Emphasis supplied)
Articles 27(3) and 18(2) make it clear that the state’s role is to assist the parents in
carrying out their responsibilities, although article 19(1) requires the state also to
take appropriate measures to protect the child from all forms of abuse or neglect.
73. This represents the detailed working out, for children, of the principle
established in article 16(3) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and article
23(1) of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights that “the family is
the natural and fundamental group unit of society and is entitled to protection by
society and the state”. There is an inextricable link between the protection of the
family and the protection of fundamental freedoms in liberal democracies. The noble
concept in article 1 of the Universal Declaration, that “all human beings are born
free and equal in dignity and rights” is premised on difference. If we were all the
same, we would not need to guarantee that individual differences should be
respected. Justice Barak of the Supreme Court of Israel has put it like this (in El-Al
Israeli Airlines Ltd v Danielowitz [1992-4] IsrLR 478, para 14):
“The factual premise is that people are different from one
another, ‘no person is completely identical to another’ … Every
person is a world in himself. Society is based on people who
are different from one another. Only the worst dictatorships try
to eradicate these differences.”
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Individual differences are the product of the interplay between the individual person
and his upbringing and environment. Different upbringings produce different
people. The first thing that a totalitarian regime tries to do is to get at the children,
to distance them from the subversive, varied influences of their families, and
indoctrinate them in their rulers’ view of the world. Within limits, families must be
left to bring up their children in their own way. As Justice McReynolds, delivering
the Opinion of the Supreme Court of the United States famously put it in Pierce v
Society of Sisters 268 US 510 (1925), 534-535:
“The fundamental theory of liberty upon which all
governments in this Union repose excludes any general power
of the state to standardize its children by forcing them to accept
instruction from public teachers only. The child is not the mere
creature of the state; those who nurture him and direct his
destiny have the right, coupled with the high duty, to recognize
and prepare him for additional obligations.”
74. Thus it is not surprising that the ECtHR, in Neulinger and Shuruk v
Switzerland (2012) 54 EHRR 31, interpreted article 8 in the context, among other
instruments, of the UNCRC and explained the concept of the child’s best interests
in this way:
“The child’s interest comprises two limbs. On the one hand, it
dictates that the child’s ties with its family must be maintained,
except in cases where the family has proved particularly unfit.
It follows that family ties may only be severed in very
exceptional circumstances and that everything must be done to
preserve personal relations and, if and when appropriate, to
‘rebuild’ the family (see Gnahoré, cited above, para 59). On
the other hand, it is clearly also in the child’s interest to ensure
its development in a sound environment, and a parent cannot
be entitled under article 8 to have such measures taken as would
harm the child’s health and development (see, among many
other authorities, Elsholz v Germany (2002) 34 EHRR 58 at
[50], and Maršálek v the Czech Republic, no 8153/04, at [71],
4 April 2006).” (para 136)
75. The privacy of a child or young person is also an important interest. Article
16 of the UNCRC provides:
“1. No child shall be subjected to arbitrary or unlawful
interference with his or her privacy, family, home or
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correspondence, nor to unlawful attacks on his or her honour
and reputation.
2. The child has the right to the protection of the law
against such interference or attacks.”
The concept of “private life” in article 8 covers the disclosure of personal data, such
as information about a person’s health, criminal offending, sexual activities or other
personal matters. The notion of personal autonomy is an important principle
underlying the guarantees of the ECHR. See, for example, Gillan v United Kingdom
(2010) 50 EHRR 1105, para 61.
76. Article 8 protects confidential information as an aspect of human autonomy
and dignity: Campbell v MGN Ltd [2004] 2 AC 457, Lord Hoffmann paras 50-51,
Lady Hale para 134. Thus in Z v Finland (1998) 25 EHRR 371, para 95, a case
concerning the disclosure by a court of a person’s identity and medical data, the
ECtHR stated:
“… the protection of personal data, not least medical data, is of
fundamental importance to a person’s enjoyment of his or her
right to respect for private and family life as guaranteed by
article 8 of the Convention. Respecting the confidentiality of
health data is a vital principle in the legal systems of all the
Contracting Parties to the Convention. It is crucial not only to
respect the sense of privacy of a patient but also to preserve his
or her confidence in the medical profession and in the health
services in general.
Without such protection, those in need of medical assistance
may be deterred from revealing such information of a personal
and intimate nature as may be necessary in order to receive
appropriate treatment and, even, from seeking such assistance,
thereby endangering their own health and, in the case of
transmissible diseases, that of the community.
The domestic law must therefore afford appropriate safeguards
to prevent any such communication or disclosure of personal
health data as may be inconsistent with the guarantees in article
8 of the Convention.” (para 95)
Page 35
77. More recently, in a case concerning a complaint that a hospital had failed to
guarantee the security of a person’s data against unauthorised access, the ECtHR
repeated that statement and again confirmed that the processing of information
relating to an individual’s private life comes within the scope of article 8 and that
personal information relating to a patient “undoubtedly belongs to his or her private
life”: I v Finland (2009) 48 EHRR 740, paras 35-38. Similarly, the Court of Justice
of the European Union in X v Commission [1994] ECR I-4347 has opined (para 17)
that the right to respect for private life, embodied in article 8, “includes in particular
a person’s right to keep his state of health secret”.
(ii) Whether Part 4 of the 2014 Act interferes with article 8 rights
78. The provisions of Part 4 of the 2014 Act by which the state may intervene in
family life and private life engage article 8. But, while article 8 is engaged, not all
that may be done under Part 4 would involve an interference with a person’s article
8 rights. There are elements of the role of the named person which are unlikely, by
themselves, to involve any interference with the right of a parent, child or young
person to respect for his or her private and family life. Thus, by themselves, the
functions in section 19(5)(a)(i) and (ii) of providing advice, information and support
and helping the parent, child or young person to access a service or support would
not normally constitute an interference with the article 8 rights of either the child or
his or her parents. But it is clear from the consultation paper, “A Scotland for
Children” and the Policy Memorandum, which we discussed in paras 1 to 3 above,
that the sharing of personal data between relevant public authorities is central to the
role of the named person. As we have explained, this may well constitute an
interference with the article 8 rights of those to whom the information relates. We
are therefore satisfied that the operation of the information-sharing provisions of
Part 4 (in particular, sections 23, 26 and 27) will result in interferences with rights
protected by article 8 of the ECHR. The question therefore arises whether such
interferences can be justified under article 8(2).
(iii) In accordance with the law
79. In order to be “in accordance with the law” under article 8(2), the measure
must not only have some basis in domestic law – which it has in the provisions of
the Act of the Scottish Parliament – but also be accessible to the person concerned
and foreseeable as to its effects. These qualitative requirements of accessibility and
foreseeability have two elements. First, a rule must be formulated with sufficient
precision to enable any individual – if need be with appropriate advice – to regulate
his or her conduct: Sunday Times v United Kingdom (1979) 2 EHRR 245, para 49;
Gillan v United Kingdom (2010) 50 EHRR 1105, para 76. Secondly, it must be
sufficiently precise to give legal protection against arbitrariness:
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“it must afford a measure of legal protection against arbitrary
interferences by public authorities with the rights safeguarded
by the Convention. In matters affecting fundamental rights it
would be contrary to the rule of law … for a legal discretion
granted to the executive to be expressed in terms of an
unfettered power. Consequently, the law must indicate with
sufficient clarity the scope of any discretion conferred on the
competent authorities and the manner of its exercise. The level
of precision required of domestic legislation – which cannot in
any case provide for every eventuality – depends to a
considerable degree on the content of the instrument in
question, the field it is designed to cover and the number and
status of those to whom it is addressed.” Gillan v United
Kingdom, para 77; Peruzzo v Germany (2013) 57 EHRR SE 17,
para 35.
80. Recently, in R (T) v Chief Constable of Greater Manchester Police [2015]
AC 49 this court has explained that the obligation to give protection against arbitrary
interference requires that there must be safeguards which have the effect of enabling
the proportionality of the interference to be adequately examined. This is an issue of
the rule of law and is not a matter on which national authorities are given a margin
of appreciation.
81. In deciding whether there is sufficient foreseeability to allow a person to
regulate his or her conduct and sufficient safeguards against arbitrary interference
with fundamental rights, the court can look not only at formal legislation but also at
published official guidance and codes of conduct: Silver v United Kingdom (1983)
5 EHRR 347 (paras 88-90); Gillan v United Kingdom (paras 35, 36 and 78) and MM
v United Kingdom (Application no 24029/07). In R (Roberts) v Comr of Police of
the Metropolis [2015] UKSC 79; [2016] 1 WLR 210 this court took into account as
constraints on the power of the police to stop and search not only the limits on that
power in section 60 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 and the legal
protection provided by both section 6 of the Human Rights Act 1998 and the
Equality Act 2010, but also the requirements of the Metropolitan Police’s Standard
Operating Procedures. That statutory document, which was published on the
Metropolitan Police’s website, regulated the authorisation of stop and search, the
operation and also the individual encounter between a police officer and a member
of the public on the street. In relation to the exercise on the street of the stop and
search power it not only gave officers detailed instructions, which were designed to
ensure their proportionate use of such power, but also required them to explain to
the individual who was to be searched the reason for the search, to record that reason
in writing and make available to the affected individual a copy of that written record.
These provided adequate safeguards to enable the courts to examine the
Page 37
proportionality of any interference with fundamental rights: see the judgment of
Lady Hale and Lord Reed at paras 43-48.
82. Thus in assessing whether Part 4 of the 2014 Act is “in accordance with the
law” this court has been invited to take into account not only the terms of the Act
but also, proleptically, the RDSG, which we have discussed in paras 18 to 25 above.
As we have stated (in para 18 above), the RDSG is directed to specified public
authorities, which under section 28(1) of the Act are required to “have regard to” it.
In contrast with, for example, the Metropolitan Police’s Standard Operating
Procedures which we have mentioned, there is no compulsion to follow the
guidance. The RDSG gives very little guidance as to the requirements of the DPA
or article 8 of the ECHR but envisages that separate practice materials will be made
available to practitioners.
83. As we explained in paras 52 to 62 above when we discussed the effect of the
Act in relation to the DPA and the Directive, the powers and duties of disclosure set
out in sections 23 and 26 cannot be taken at face value. In several crucial respects,
the scope of the duties and powers to disclose or share information set out on the
face of the Act are, in reality, significantly curtailed by the requirements of the DPA
and the Directive. To recap:
(1) Although section 23(2)(b) purports to impose on the outgoing service
provider a duty to provide the incoming service provider with all information
which it holds which falls within subsection (3), in reality no such duty exists
in relation to sensitive data as defined in the DPA, unless at least one of the
conditions set out in Schedule 3 to the DPA is satisfied (the conditions set out
in section 23(3)-(6) of the 2014 Act not in themselves ensuring their
satisfaction).
(2) Although section 26(1) purports to impose on a service provider or
relevant authority (or any person exercising a function on their behalf) a duty
to provide to the service provider in relation to a child or young person any
information which the person holds which falls within subsection (2), in
reality no such duty exists in relation to sensitive data as defined in the DPA,
unless at least one of the conditions set out in Schedule 3 to the DPA is
satisfied (the conditions set out in section 26(2) and (5)-(7) of the 2014 Act
not in themselves ensuring their satisfaction).
(3) Although section 26(3) purports to impose on the service provider in
relation to a child or young person a duty to provide to a service provider or
relevant authority (or any person exercising a function on their behalf) any
information which the person holds which falls within subsection (4), in
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reality no such duty exists in relation to sensitive data as defined in the DPA,
unless at least one of the conditions set out in Schedule 3 to the DPA is
satisfied (the conditions set out in section 26(4) and (5)-(7) of the 2014 Act
not in themselves ensuring their satisfaction).
(4) Although section 26(8) purports to confer on the service provider in
relation to a child or young person the power to provide to a service provider
or relevant authority (or any person exercising a function on their behalf) any
information which the person holds which falls within subsection (9), in
reality no such power can lawfully be exercised unless the requirements of
the DPA are satisfied (the condition set out in section 26(9) of the 2014 Act
not in itself ensuring their satisfaction). Those requirements include, but are
not limited to, compliance with at least one of the conditions in Schedule 2
to the DPA, and also, if the information in question is sensitive data,
compliance with at least one of the conditions in Schedule 3. They also
include compliance with the requirements arising in relation to the first data
principle under Part II of Schedule 1 to the DPA, and also the other data
protection principles and the other duties imposed by the DPA.
That is not a comprehensive account of the requirements imposed by the DPA: as
explained above, those requirements were not fully discussed at the hearing of the
appeal. The relationship between the Act and the DPA is rendered particularly
obscure by what we have described as the logical puzzle arising from sections 23(7)
and 26(11) when read with section 35(1) of the DPA. It is also necessary to ensure
that the requirements of articles 7 and 8 of the Directive are met, so far as
information falls within its scope. There are thus very serious difficulties in
accessing the relevant legal rules when one has to read together and cross refer
between Part 4 of the Act and the DPA and work out the relative priority of their
provisions.
84. Of even greater concern is the lack of safeguards which would enable the
proportionality of an interference with article 8 rights to be adequately examined.
Section 26(5) requires an information holder, when considering whether information
ought to be provided in the exercise of the duties in section 26(1) or (3), “so far as
reasonably practicable to ascertain and have regard to the views of the child or young
person”. But there is no such requirement in relation to a service provider’s
discretionary power to share information under section 26(8). There the test is
merely that the provision of the information is necessary or expedient for the
purposes of the exercise of any of the named person functions. Moreover, there is
no statutory requirement, qualified or otherwise, to inform the parents of a child
about the sharing of information. The RDSG is only guidance, speaks of “routine
good practice”, and leaves it to the discretion of the information holder whether to
involve the parent or parents. It is thus perfectly possible that information, including
confidential information concerning a child or young person’s state of health (for
Page 39
example, as to contraception, pregnancy or sexually transmitted disease), could be
disclosed under section 26 to a wide range of public authorities without either the
child or young person or her parents being aware of the interference with their article
8 rights, and in circumstances in which there was no objectively compelling reason
for the failure to ascertain and have regard to their views. While para 10.14.2 of the
RDSG advises that a record should be kept of the rationale behind a decision to share
information, such a record will not assist a child, young person or parent who is not
informed that the information is to be or has been shared.
85. We conclude therefore that the information-sharing provisions of Part 4 of
the Act and the RDSG as currently drafted do not meet the article 8 criterion of being
“in accordance with the law”.
(iv) Whether the interference is proportionate
86. The fourth question is whether Part 4 of the Act, when considered along with
section 6 of the Human Rights Act 1998, the DPA and the RDSG, will give rise to
interferences with the article 8 rights of children, young persons or parents which
are proportionate, having regard to the legitimate aim pursued.
87. In assessing proportionality it is necessary to distinguish between the Act
itself and its operation in individual cases. The Act gives the named person three
principal functions in section 19(5). As we have said (para 78 above), the first two
would not normally constitute an interference with the right to respect for private or
family life. The third, which itself involves the sharing of information, may more
readily do so. The information-sharing provisions in sections 23, 26 and 27 are, as
we have said, limited by the DPA, particularly in relation to the disclosure of
sensitive personal data. Separately, the operation of the Act in individual cases will
involve the exercise of powers in many different circumstances which may entail
more or less serious interferences with private and family life and which may
provide stronger or weaker justification for such interference.
88. This court has explained that an ab ante challenge to the validity of legislation
on the basis of a lack of proportionality faces a high hurdle: if a legislative provision
is capable of being operated in a manner which is compatible with Convention rights
in that it will not give rise to an unjustified interference with article 8 rights in all or
almost all cases, the legislation itself will not be incompatible with Convention
rights: R (Bibi) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2015] UKSC 68;
[2015] 1 WLR 5055, paras 2 and 60 per Lady Hale, para 69 per Lord Hodge. The
proportionality challenge in this case does not surmount that hurdle. Nonetheless, it
can readily be foreseen that in practice the sharing and exchange of information
between public authorities are likely to give rise to disproportionate interferences
Page 40
with article 8 rights, unless the information holder carries out a scrupulous and
informed assessment of proportionality.
89. In their submissions, the Ministers treated the promotion of children’s
wellbeing as being in itself a legitimate aim under article 8. They relied on
international instruments in which the term “wellbeing” is used, although possibly
not in quite as wide a sense as in the 2014 Act. For example, article 3(2) of the
UNCRC provides:
“States Parties undertake to ensure the child such protection
and care as is necessary for his or her wellbeing, taking into
account the rights and duties of his or her parents, legal
guardians, or other individuals legally responsible for him or
her, and, to this end, shall take all appropriate legislative and
administrative measures.”
Similarly, article 24(1) of the EU Charter of Fundamental Rights (“CFR”) provides:
“Children shall have the right to such protection and care as is
necessary for their wellbeing …”
The promotion of the wellbeing of children and young people is not, however, one
of the aims listed in article 8(2) of the ECHR. At the most general level, it can be
said to be linked to the economic wellbeing of the country, as the Ministers’
submissions emphasised. The extent to which an individual intervention is likely to
promote the achievement of such a general aim is however very limited. Individual
interventions may make a greater contribution towards achieving other legitimate
aims, such as the prevention of disorder or crime, or the protection of health or
morals, depending on the circumstances. However, the more tenuous the link
between the objective pursued by the intervention (eg that a child or young person
should be “achieving, nurtured, active, respected, responsible and included”) and
the achievement of one of the legitimate aims listed in article 8(2), the more difficult
it will be to justify a significant interference with the individual’s private and family
life. For example, if (contrary to our view) the 2014 Act as currently enacted had
enabled the disclosure of sensitive personal data without the consent of the affected
party, the disclosure by health professionals of information that a young person was
being prescribed contraceptives or had contracted a sexually transmitted disease
would be a major interference with private life which could only be justified on very
compelling grounds.
Page 41
90. It is now the standard approach of this court to address the following four
questions when it considers the question of proportionality:
(i) whether the objective is sufficiently important to justify the limitation
of a protected right,
(ii) whether the measure is rationally connected to the objective,
(iii) whether a less intrusive measure could have been used without
unacceptably compromising the achievement of the objective, and
(iv) whether, balancing the severity of the measure’s effects on the rights
of the persons to whom it applies against the importance of the objective, to
the extent that the measure will contribute to its achievement, the former
outweighs the latter (ie whether the impact of the rights infringement is
disproportionate to the likely benefit of the impugned measure).
See Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2007] UKHL 11; [2007]
2 AC 167, para 19 per Lord Bingham of Cornhill; R (Aguilar Quila) v Secretary of
State for the Home Department [2011] UKSC 45; [2012] 1 AC 621, para 45 per
Lord Wilson; Bank Mellat v HM Treasury (No 2) [2013] UKSC 39; [2014] AC 700,
para 74 per Lord Reed; and R (Bibi) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
[2015] UKSC 68; [2015] 1 WLR 5055, para 29 per Lady Hale.
91. As to the first of those questions, it can be accepted, focusing on the
legislation itself rather than on individual cases dealt with under the legislation, that
Part 4 of the 2014 Act pursues legitimate aims. The public interest in the flourishing
of children is obvious. The aim of the Act, which is unquestionably legitimate and
benign, is the promotion and safeguarding of the wellbeing of children and young
persons. As the Dean of Faculty submitted, the policy of promoting better outcomes
for individual children and families is not inconsistent with the primary
responsibility of parents to promote the wellbeing of their children. Improving
access to, and the coordination of, public services which can assist the promotion of
a child’s wellbeing are legitimate objectives which are sufficiently important to
justify some limitation on the right to respect for private and family life.
92. Secondly, Part 4 of the Act is rationally connected to the legitimate aims
pursued. As the Scottish Government’s consultation paper, “A Scotland for
Children” showed, the aims of the legislation are to move public bodies with
responsibility for children towards early intervention to promote children’s
wellbeing rather than only responding to a serious occurrence and to ensure that
Page 42
those public bodies collaborated and shared relevant information concerning the
wellbeing of individual children. As the Second Division stated (para 63), the named
person is at the heart of the Scottish Government’s proposals. That person is tasked
with advising on the wellbeing of a child, helping a child or parent to access a service
or support, and being the single point of contact for public services in relation to the
child in order to promote, support or safeguard the child’s wellbeing.
93. The third question (whether a less intrusive measure could have been used)
does not involve a court in identifying the alternative legislative measure which was
least intrusive. The court allows the legislature a margin of discretion and asks
whether the limitation on the fundamental right is one which it was reasonable for
the legislature to impose: Bank Mellat v HM Treasury (No 2), para 75. If, as the
appellants submitted in their broader challenge, a named person should be appointed
in relation to a child only if the parents consented or, absent such consent, if the
appointment was necessary to protect the welfare of a child who was at risk of harm,
the scope for early intervention to resolve problems and for the coordination of
public services in support of a child’s wellbeing would be diminished. Separate
questions will arise as to whether, in an individual case, early intervention and
coordination of services could be achieved by less intrusive means. That issue can
be considered under the final question of fair balance.
94. The fourth question is whether the impact of the rights infringement may be
disproportionate to the likely benefit of the impugned measure. This requires
consideration of the operation of Part 4 of the Act in particular cases, since it cannot
be said that its operation will necessarily give rise to disproportionate interferences
in all cases. In that regard, the named person’s functions to give advice, information
and support (section 19(5)(a)(i)) and to help the child, young person or parent to
access a service or support (section 19(5)(a)(ii)) are, as we have said, less likely to
give rise to any question of disproportion in a particular case. The provision of
access to services could involve the creation of a child’s plan under Part 5 of the
Act, but that involves no compulsion. The Act does not alter the statutory criteria of
any compulsory measures in relation to children and young people. Thus the criteria
for making a child assessment order in section 36(2) or a child protection order in
sections 38 and 39 of the Children’s Hearings (Scotland) Act 2011 require (put
shortly) reasonable grounds to suspect that the child is likely to suffer significant
harm. The long list of grounds upon which a child may come before a children’s
hearing with a view to making a compulsory supervision order (which can include
taking the child away from home) in section 67 of that Act remain focused upon the
risk of harm to the child or the child’s own misconduct.
95. Nevertheless, there must be a risk that, in an individual case, parents will be
given the impression that they must accept the advice or services which they are
offered, especially in pursuance of a child’s plan for targeted intervention under Part
5; and further, that their failure to co-operate with such a plan will be taken to be
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evidence of a risk of harm. An assertion of such compulsion, whether express or
implied, and an assessment of non-cooperation as evidence of such a risk could well
amount to an interference with the right to respect for family life which would
require justification under article 8(2). Given the very wide scope of the concept of
“wellbeing” and the SHANARRI factors, this might be difficult. Care should
therefore be taken to emphasise the voluntary nature of the advice, information,
support and help which are offered under section 19(5)(a)(i) and (ii) and the
Guidance should make this clear.
96. The function, in section 19(5)(a)(iii), of discussing or raising a matter about
a child or young person with a service provider or relevant authority, involves the
disclosure of information. It and the information-sharing provisions in sections 23,
26 and 27 raise difficult questions of proportionality in particular cases, where the
information holder, when considering whether the information ought to be provided
(section 26(2)(b) and (4)(b)) or whether to provide information under section 26(8),
will have to consider carefully whether the particular circumstances justify the
disclosure of the particular information. In our view, given this role of the
information holder, it cannot be said that the operation of the information-sharing
duties and powers in relation to any of the named person’s functions will necessarily
amount to a disproportionate interference with article 8 rights. But for the problem
in relation to the requirement that the Act be “in accordance with the law” (paras
79-85 above), we consider that the Act would be capable of being operated in a
manner which is compatible with the Convention rights.
97. But the task facing the information holder is a daunting one because the Act
does not address the factors to be considered in an assessment of proportionality and
the RDSG gives exiguous guidance on that issue. The provisions of the Act appear
to point toward a more relaxed approach to disclosure than is compatible with article
8. Section 26(1) and (3) oblige the information holder to provide information which
meets the criteria set out in subsections (2) and (4). Those criteria include an
assessment of whether the information is likely to be relevant to the exercise of
functions which may affect the wellbeing of the child or young person. In turn, the
assessment of that wellbeing under section 96, as explained by the RDSG, involves
the use of very broad criteria which could trigger the sharing of information by a
wide range of public bodies (as to which see para 5 above) and also the initiation of
intrusive inquiries into a child’s wellbeing. In our view, the criteria in sections 23(3),
26(2) and 26(4) by themselves create too low a threshold for disclosure (as explained
at para 56 above), and for the overriding of duties of confidentiality in relation to
sensitive personal information.
98. Under sections 23(4) and 26(5) the information holder, when deciding
whether information ought to be provided under sections 23(2) and 26(1) or (3), is
obliged so far as is reasonably practicable to ascertain and have regard to the views
of the child or young person. But those provisions do not require that person’s
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consent, or require that there be any good reason for dispensing with her consent,
before what may be highly personal information, imparted in confidence, is shared.
Further, the information holder is under no obligation to ascertain the views of the
child or young person, or her parents, when exercising a discretion under section
26(8), in which the test is whether the provision of the information is considered to
be “necessary or expedient” for the purposes of the exercise of any of the named
person functions. Thus the exercise of the section 26(8) power could involve the
overriding of duties of confidentiality without any obligation even to consult the
child, young person or parent. The RDSG (at paras 4.1.28 and 10.7.4) presents such
consultation as good practice but it is not obligatory, even on a qualified basis.
Further, there is no provision imposing even a qualified requirement that the child
or young person or her parents be warned that confidential information may be
disclosed, or informed after the event that it has been shared.
99. In many circumstances the Act’s intended overriding of the duty of
confidentiality may not be achieved. In our discussion of reserved matters (paras 27
to 66 above) we showed that, because of the terms of sections 23(7) and 26(11), the
DPA and the Directive impose significant restrictions on the ability of public
authorities in the performance of their duties under sections 23(2), 26(1) and (3) to
share information which is “sensitive personal data”, such as information about a
person’s health or sexual life, without the explicit consent of the data subject. We
showed that, for the same reasons, the power under section 26(8) to share
information remains subject to all of the restrictions of the DPA against disclosure,
thus normally requiring consent of the data subject, in relation also to non-sensitive
personal data. Thus some of the concerns of the appellants and the interveners in
relation to the criteria for the sharing of information are, on a proper interpretation
of the legislation, addressed by the continued operation of the DPA and the
Directive, which in many cases will require the consent of the data subject to the
sharing of the information.
100. Nonetheless, there may be information which is not “sensitive personal data”
which is nonetheless confidential. Even with the restrictions of the DPA, the Act
does not point towards a fair balance in relation to the disclosure of such confidential
information in the performance of duties under sections 23(2), 26(1) and 26(3). The
central problems are the lack of any requirement to obtain the consent of the child,
young person, or his or her parents to the disclosure, the lack of any requirement to
inform them about the possibility of such disclosure at the time when the information
is obtained from them, and the lack of any requirement to inform them about such
disclosure after it has taken place. Such requirements cannot, of course, be absolute:
reasonable exceptions can be made where, for example, the child is unable to give
consent, or the circumstances are such that it would be inappropriate for the parents’
consent to be sought, or the child’s best interests might be harmed. But, without such
safeguards, the overriding of confidentiality is likely often to be disproportionate.
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101. In order to reduce the risk of disproportionate interferences, there is a need
for guidance to the information holder on the assessment of proportionality when
considering whether information should be provided. In particular, there is a need
for guidance on (a) the circumstances in which consent should be obtained, (b) those
in which such consent can be dispensed with and (c) whether, if consent is not to be
obtained, the affected parties should be informed of the disclosure either before or
after it has occurred. Also relevant is whether the recipient of the information is
subject to sufficient safeguards to prevent abuse: MS v Sweden (1997) 28 EHRR
313. Further, if the guidance is to operate as “law” for the purposes of article 8, the
information holder should be required to do more than merely have regard to it.
III The EU Law challenge
102. The appellants also challenge the information-sharing provisions of sections
26 and 27 of the Act on the ground that they are incompatible with EU law. Counsel
referred to the following articles of the CFR: article 7 (respect for private and family
life), article 8 (protection of personal data), article 14 (right to education) –
particularly 14(3): respect for the right of parents to ensure that the education of their
children conforms with their convictions – and article 33(1) (family and professional
life). In short, they submitted that the sharing of personal data without consent and
absent strict necessity infringed one or more of those articles of the CFR.
103. It is not suggested that the DPA fails to transpose the Directive or is contrary
to the CFR. In so far as the appellants’ complaint relates to the sharing of what the
DPA describes as “sensitive personal data”, we have, in large measure in agreement
with the Inner House and the Lord Ordinary, interpreted the relevant provisions of
the DPA and the 2014 Act as preserving the stringent restrictions in Schedule 3 to
the DPA and having the effect that condition 7(1)(b) of Schedule 3 is not met (paras
49 to 58 above). In so far as the DPA allows the 2014 Act to authorise the disclosure
of (non-sensitive) personal data which are not subject to any duty of confidentiality,
we do not see a separate issue arising under EU law.
104. In so far as the challenge relates to the over-riding of confidentiality of
personal data (whether or not sensitive), we have addressed this in our discussion of
article 8 of the ECHR. In Volker und Marcus Schecke GbR and Hartmut Eifert v
Land Hessen (Cases C-92/09 and C-93/09) [2010] ECR I-11063, the Court of Justice
of the European Union (Grand Chamber) held (para 52) that the limitations which
may lawfully be placed on the right to the protection of personal data correspond to
those tolerated in relation to article 8 of the ECHR. We are therefore satisfied that
there is no additional incompatibility with EU law beyond that which we have found
in relation to article 8 of the ECHR.
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105. The appellants also submit that the Act contravenes EU law because there is
no provision enabling a parent or child to seek the removal of information
concerning a child from a named person’s database once the data are no longer
needed for the purposes for which they were collected or processed. Reference was
made to Google Spain SL v Agencia Española de Protección de Datos (Case C131/12) [2014] QB 1022, paras 93-97. We do not accept this submission. In our
view the data retained by public authorities in the exercise of powers under the Act
are subject to the fifth data protection principle in Part I of Schedule 1 to the DPA,
namely that “personal data processed for any purpose or purposes shall not be kept
for longer than is necessary for that purpose or those purposes”. This is because this
provision is not inconsistent with the disclosure which sections 23(2), 26(1) and
26(3) of the 2014 Act allows: DPA section 27(3) & (4) (paras 53 and 54 above). Part
V of the DPA empowers the Information Commissioner, whether at the request of a
data subject or otherwise, to enquire into a data controller’s compliance with the
data protection principles. Under section 40 of the DPA, the Information
Commissioner is empowered to serve an enforcement notice on a data controller to
require such compliance. The DPA thus has protections for a data subject, who can
also, if necessary, seek judicial review of a decision of the Information
Commissioner. In our view, the data subject is thereby given a legal remedy and
judicial protection as required by Schrems v Data Protection Comr (Case C-362/14)
[2016] QB 527, para 95.
IV Remedy
106. In summary, we conclude that the information-sharing provisions of Part 4
of the Act (a) do not relate to reserved matters, namely the subject matter of the DPA
and the Directive, (b) are incompatible with the rights of children, young persons
and parents under article 8 of the ECHR because they are not “in accordance with
the law” as that article requires, (c) may in practice result in a disproportionate
interference with the article 8 rights of many children, young persons and their
parents, through the sharing of private information, and (d) are not incompatible
with EU law in any way which goes beyond their incompatibility with article 8 of
the ECHR. We are satisfied that it is not possible to remedy this defect by reading
down the provisions under section 101 of the Scotland Act 1998. Conclusion (b)
therefore means that the information-sharing provisions of Part 4 of the Act are not
within the legislative competence of the Scottish Parliament.
107. It would not be appropriate for this court to propose particular legislative
solutions. But we can properly say the following. We do not think that amendment
of the RDSG will get round the problem in conclusion (b) or be sufficient in itself
to prevent many instances of disproportionate interference to which we refer in
conclusion (c). Section 28 requires the specified public authorities merely to have
regard to the guidance. In relation to conclusion (b), it is necessary to address the
lack of clarity as to the relationship between the Act and the DPA, arising from the
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conflict between the provisions of sections 23, 26 and 27 of the Act and the nondisclosure provisions of the DPA, and, in particular, the confusion caused by
sections 23(7) and 26(11) when read together with provisions of the DPA such as
section 35(1). Further, in relation to conclusion (c), the Act, subordinate legislation,
or binding “guidance”, should address the circumstances in which (i) the child,
young person or parent should be informed of the sharing of information or (ii)
consent should be obtained for the sharing of information, including confidential
information. If the resolution of the problem in conclusion (b) leads to the
authorisation of the disclosure of sensitive personal data, the problem identified in
conclusion (c) will become even more acute as the sharing of such data will require
a compelling justification. In short, changes are needed both to improve the
accessibility of the legal rules and to provide safeguards so that the proportionality
of an interference can be challenged and assessed. The reconsideration of the terms
of the Act and the RDSG also provides an opportunity to minimise the risk of
disproportionate interferences with the article 8 rights of children, young persons
and parents. Consideration of these matters will involve policy questions which are
the responsibility of the Scottish Ministers and the democratic legislature.
108. Section 102 of the Scotland Act 1998 provides:
“(1) This section applies where any court or tribunal decides
that –
(a) an Act of the Scottish Parliament or any
provision of such an Act is not within the legislative
competence of the Parliament …
(2) The court or tribunal may make an order –

(b) suspending the effect of the decision for any
period and on any conditions to allow the defect to be
corrected.”
109. We are of the view that this court should consider making an order under
section 102(2)(b) of the Scotland Act 1998 to allow the Scottish Parliament and the
Scottish Ministers an opportunity, if so advised, to correct the defects which we have
identified. We do not think that it is appropriate to set out the possible terms of such
an order until we have received written submissions from the parties on the terms of
the order, including both the period of suspension and any conditions which should
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be attached to the order. As was said in Salvesen v Riddell 2013 SC (UKSC) 236
(Lord Hope at para 57), if such an order is made, it may be appropriate to give
permission to the Lord Advocate to return to the court for any further orders under
section 102(2)(b) as may be required. The court which is best placed to make such
further orders may be the Court of Session. In the meantime, since the defective
provisions are not within the legislative competence of the Parliament, they cannot
be brought into force.
Conclusion
110. We would allow the appeal and invite the parties to produce written
submissions on the terms of a section 102 order within 42 days of the date of this
judgment.